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Tamil Nadu SSLC March 2026 Science Question Paper with Step-by-Step Solutions

AI-written · numbers calculator-checked on 27 Oct 2026

Step-by-step working for 38 questions of the board's own exam paper “SCIENCE (Tamil & English Version), paper code 9219” (75 marks, 3 hours), written by Shishya. Each question is in our own shorter words; open the board's paper for the exact wording, figures and instructions.

How to answer this paper: Part I: all 12 (1 mark each). Part II: any seven of Q13–22, Q22 compulsory (2 marks each). Part III: any seven of Q23–32, Q32 compulsory (4 marks each). Part IV: all three questions, each with an either/or choice (7 marks each).

How these were checked: the solutions were drafted with AI from the board's English-medium paper (read on 27 Oct 2026). On 27 Oct 2026, every final number was recomputed from the question's own numbers by a calculator check that runs before each release. They were not compared with a board answer key: none was listed beside this paper on the board's page when Shishya read it. Graphs, constructions and diagrams are described step by step, not drawn. If something looks wrong, your teacher and the board's own answer key, where one exists, are the authority.

DGE publishes one PDF with every SSLC subject of the March 2026 exam (173 pages); Science (code 9219) is inside it, Tamil and English on the same page. The Tamil lines of this PDF do not copy as text, so these solutions follow the English version.

Free to read: the first 5 solutions are open to everyone; the other 33 open with a free Shishya account (for students 13 and above).

Part I

  1. Q1

    1 markGravitation

    If the earth shrank to half its radius with the same mass, how would the weight of a body on it change? Options: (a) decrease by 50%, (b) increase by 50%, (c) decrease by 25%, (d) increase by 300%.

    1. Weight is given by W = mg, where g is the acceleration due to gravity.
    2. The acceleration due to gravity is g = GM/R², where M is the mass of the Earth and R is its radius.
    3. The mass M remains the same, and the radius becomes half, so R' = R/2.
    4. The new acceleration due to gravity is g' = GM/(R/2)² = GM/(R²/4) = 4GM/R².
    5. Thus, g' = 4g, meaning the weight becomes 4 times the original weight.
    6. An increase to 4 times the original value corresponds to an increase of 300% (400% − 100%).

    Answer: The weight becomes 4 times — an increase of 300% — option (d).

  2. Q2

    1 markOptics

    The sign of the magnification of a convex lens. Options: (a) Positive, (b) Negative, (c) Either positive or negative, (d) Zero.

    1. A convex lens forms a real image when the object is placed outside the focal length, resulting in a negative magnification.
    2. A convex lens forms a virtual image when the object is placed between the lens and the focal point, resulting in a positive magnification.
    3. Therefore, the sign of magnification can be either positive or negative depending on the position of the object.

    Answer: Either positive or negative — option (c).

  3. Q3

    1 markElectricity

    Why does a bulb glow when the switch of a simple circuit is closed? Options: (a) the switch makes electricity, (b) closing the switch completes the circuit, (c) closing the switch breaks the circuit, (d) the bulb gets charged.

    1. When the switch is closed, it provides a continuous conducting path for the electric current.
    2. This completes the circuit, allowing current to flow from the battery through the bulb.
    3. The flow of current through the filament of the bulb causes it to heat up and glow.

    Answer: Closing the switch completes the circuit, allowing current to flow and the bulb to glow — option (b).

  4. Q4

    1 markNuclear physics

    A nucleus X with mass number 12 and atomic number 6 undergoes alpha decay to Y. Find Y's mass number A and atomic number Z. Options: (a) 8, 6, (b) 8, 4, (c) 4, 8, (d) cannot be found from the data.

    1. Alpha decay involves the emission of an alpha particle, which is a helium nucleus with mass number 4 and atomic number 2.
    2. The mass number of the daughter nucleus Y is calculated by subtracting 4 from the parent mass number: 12 - 4 = 8.
    3. The atomic number of the daughter nucleus Y is calculated by subtracting 2 from the parent atomic number: 6 - 2 = 4.
    4. Thus, Y has mass number 8 and atomic number 4.

    Answer: Mass number A = 8, Atomic number Z = 4 — option (b).

  5. Q5

    1 markPeriodic classification

    The basis of the modern periodic law. Options: (a) Atomic number, (b) Atomic mass, (c) Isotopic mass, (d) Number of neutrons.

    1. The modern periodic law states that the physical and chemical properties of elements are periodic functions of their atomic numbers.
    2. Mendeleev's periodic law was based on atomic mass, but Moseley's work established that atomic number is the fundamental property for classification.
    3. Therefore, the basis of the modern periodic law is the atomic number.

    Answer: Atomic number — option (a).

  6. Q6

    1 markSolutions

    100 ml of water dissolves at most 36 g of NaCl. 25 g is already dissolved: how much more makes it saturated? Options: (a) 12 g, (b) 11 g, (c) 16 g, (d) 20 g.

    1. Identify the maximum amount of NaCl that can dissolve in 100 ml of water at the given temperature, which is 36 g.
    2. Identify the amount of NaCl already dissolved in the solution, which is 25 g.
    3. Calculate the additional amount of NaCl required to reach saturation by subtracting the dissolved amount from the maximum capacity: 36 g - 25 g = 11 g.

    Answer: 11 g — option (b).

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  7. Q7

    1 markChemical reactions

    Why does powdered CaCO₃ react faster than flaky CaCO₃? Options: (a) large surface area, (b) high pressure, (c) high concentration, (d) high temperature.

    1. Powdered CaCO₃ has a much larger surface area compared to flaky CaCO₃.
    2. A larger surface area allows more particles to be exposed to the reactant simultaneously.
    3. This increases the frequency of collisions between reactant particles, leading to a faster reaction rate.

    Answer: Powdered CaCO₃ reacts faster due to its large surface area — option (a).

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  8. Q8

    1 markCarbon compounds

    Which pair can be successive members of a homologous series? Options: (a) C₃H₈ and C₄H₁₀, (b) C₂H₂ and C₂H₄, (c) CH₄ and C₃H₆, (d) C₂H₅OH and C₄H₈OH.

    1. A homologous series consists of compounds with the same general formula and functional group, where successive members differ by a -CH₂- group (14 u).
    2. Check option (a): C₃H₈ (Propane) and C₄H₁₀ (Butane) are alkanes. C₄H₁₀ - C₃H₈ = CH₂. This fits the criteria.
    3. Check option (b): C₂H₂ (Alkyne) and C₂H₄ (Alkene) have different functional groups and general formulas.
    4. Check option (c): CH₄ (Alkane) and C₃H₆ (Alkene/Alkyne) have different functional groups.
    5. Check option (d): C₂H₅OH (Ethanol) and C₄H₈OH (Butanol) differ by C₂H₃, not CH₂, so they are not successive members.

    Answer: C₃H₈ and C₄H₁₀ (propane and butane) — option (a).

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  9. Q9

    1 markPlant anatomy

    Endarch xylem is a feature of which plant part? Options: (a) root, (b) stem, (c) leaves, (d) flowers.

    1. Endarch: the protoxylem lies towards the centre and the metaxylem towards the outside.
    2. This is the arrangement in the stem; the root has exarch xylem (protoxylem outside).

    Answer: Stem — option (b).

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  10. Q10

    1 markHeredity

    What is the loss of one or more chromosomes from a set called? Options: (a) Tetraploidy, (b) Aneuploidy, (c) Euploidy, (d) Polyploidy.

    1. Recall the definition of chromosomal abnormalities.
    2. Euploidy refers to the presence of complete sets of chromosomes.
    3. Aneuploidy refers to the loss or gain of one or more individual chromosomes from a set.
    4. Polyploidy refers to the addition of one or more complete sets of chromosomes.
    5. Therefore, the loss of one or more chromosomes is called Aneuploidy.

    Answer: Aneuploidy — option (b).

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  11. Q11

    1 markHealth and diseases

    What does excessive drinking of alcohol over a long time lead to (one option)? Options: (a) loss of memory, (b) cirrhosis of the liver, (c) hallucinations, (d) suppressed brain function.

    1. Excessive alcohol consumption over a long period causes chronic damage to the liver.
    2. This damage leads to the formation of scar tissue and nodules, a condition known as cirrhosis.
    3. Cirrhosis of the liver is the primary long-term pathological effect of alcoholism.

    Answer: cirrhosis of the liver — option (b).

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  12. Q12

    1 markVisual communication (Scratch)

    In Scratch, which part is used to edit programs? Options: (a) Inkscape, (b) script editor, (c) stage, (d) sprite.

    1. Identify the components of the Scratch interface.
    2. Recall that the Stage is used to display the program output.
    3. Recall that Sprites are the characters or objects in the program.
    4. Recall that the Script Editor (or Scripting Area) is the panel where blocks are assembled to create code.
    5. Select the component used for editing programs.

    Answer: script editor — option (b).

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Part II

  1. Q13

    2 marksThermal physics

    State Boyle's law.

    1. State that the law applies to a fixed mass of gas.
    2. State that the temperature must be kept constant.
    3. State that the pressure is inversely proportional to the volume.
    4. Write the mathematical relation as P ∝ 1/V or PV = constant.

    Answer: Boyle's law states that for a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature, the pressure is inversely proportional to its volume (P ∝ 1/V).

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  2. Q14

    2 marksAtoms and molecules

    Define relative atomic mass.

    1. Relative atomic mass is the ratio of the average mass of one atom of an element to 1/12th of the mass of one atom of carbon-12 isotope.
    2. It is a dimensionless quantity and has no units.

    Answer: Relative atomic mass is the ratio of the average mass of one atom of an element to 1/12th of the mass of one atom of carbon-12 isotope.

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  3. Q15

    2 marksMetallurgy

    What is rust? Give the equation for its formation.

    1. Rust is the reddish-brown hydrated iron(III) oxide formed when iron reacts with oxygen and moisture in the air.
    2. The chemical equation for the formation of rust is: 4Fe + 3O₂ + xH₂O → 2Fe₂O₃·xH₂O

    Answer: Rust is hydrated iron(III) oxide (Fe₂O₃·xH₂O). Equation: 4Fe + 3O₂ + xH₂O → 2Fe₂O₃·xH₂O

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  4. Q16

    2 marksCarbon compounds

    Name the simplest ketone and draw its structural formula.

    1. Identify the simplest ketone as Propanone (also known as Acetone).
    2. Write the molecular formula as C₃H₆O.
    3. Draw the structural formula: A central carbon atom is double-bonded to an oxygen atom (=O) and single-bonded to two methyl groups (CH₃).
    4. The structure is represented as CH₃-CO-CH₃.

    Answer: The simplest ketone is Propanone (Acetone). Its structural formula is CH₃-CO-CH₃.

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  5. Q17

    2 marksTransportation in animals

    Why is human circulation called double circulation?

    1. Human circulation is called double circulation because the blood passes through the heart twice during one complete circuit around the body.
    2. The first circuit is the pulmonary circulation, where deoxygenated blood goes from the right ventricle to the lungs and returns oxygenated to the left atrium.
    3. The second circuit is the systemic circulation, where oxygenated blood goes from the left ventricle to the body parts and returns deoxygenated to the right atrium.

    Answer: It is called double circulation because blood passes through the heart twice in one complete cycle: once for pulmonary circulation (to lungs) and once for systemic circulation (to body).

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  6. Q18

    2 marksNervous and hormonal system

    Differences between endocrine and exocrine glands.

    1. 1. Endocrine glands are ductless glands, whereas exocrine glands are ducted glands.
    2. 2. Endocrine glands secrete hormones directly into the blood, whereas exocrine glands secrete their products (like saliva or sweat) through ducts to the outside of the body or into body cavities.

    Answer: Endocrine glands are ductless and secrete hormones into the blood; exocrine glands are ducted and secrete products through ducts.

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  7. Q19

    2 marksReproduction

    How can menstrual hygiene be kept during menstruation?

    1. Wash the external genital area with clean water and mild soap at least twice a day.
    2. Change sanitary pads or napkins every 4 to 6 hours to prevent infection.
    3. Wear clean, cotton underwear that allows air circulation.
    4. Avoid using scented soaps, douches, or perfumes in the genital area.

    Answer: Maintain cleanliness by washing the genital area twice daily, changing sanitary pads every 4-6 hours, and wearing clean cotton underwear.

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  8. Q20

    2 marksOrigin and evolution of life

    Why is Archaeopteryx called a connecting link?

    1. Archaeopteryx is called a connecting link because it shows features of both reptiles and birds.
    2. It had feathers and wings like birds, but also a long bony tail, teeth, and clawed fingers like reptiles.

    Answer: Archaeopteryx is a connecting link between reptiles and birds as it possesses characteristics of both groups.

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  9. Q21

    2 marksEnvironmental management

    Match: biogas, natural gas, greenhouse gas, CFL bulbs — with energy saving, CO₂, renewable energy, non-renewable energy.

    1. Biogas is produced from the anaerobic decomposition of organic waste, so it is a renewable energy source.
    2. Natural gas is a fossil fuel formed over millions of years, so it is a non-renewable energy source.
    3. Carbon dioxide (CO₂) is the primary gas responsible for the greenhouse effect, so it is a greenhouse gas.
    4. Compact Fluorescent Lamps (CFLs) consume less electricity than incandescent bulbs, so they are associated with energy saving.

    Answer: Biogas – Renewable energy; Natural gas – Non-renewable energy; Greenhouse gas – CO₂; CFL bulbs – Energy saving

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  10. Q22

    2 marksAcousticsCompulsory

    A 500 Hz source moves towards a listener at 30 m/s; sound travels at 330 m/s. What frequency does the listener hear?

    1. Identify the given values: Source frequency (f) = 500 Hz, Speed of sound (v) = 330 m/s, Speed of source (v_s) = 30 m/s.
    2. Use the Doppler effect formula for a source moving towards a stationary listener: f' = f × (v / (v - v_s)).
    3. Substitute the values into the formula: f' = 500 × (330 / (330 - 30)).
    4. Calculate the denominator: 330 - 30 = 300.
    5. Simplify the expression: f' = 500 × (330 / 300).
    6. Calculate the final frequency: f' = 500 × 1.1 = 550 Hz.

    Answer: The listener hears a frequency of 550 Hz.

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Part III

  1. Q23

    4 marksOptics

    (a) Two properties of light. (b) Ray diagram for a convex lens with the object between F and 2F.

    1. (a) Two properties of light: 1. Light travels in straight lines (rectilinear propagation). 2. Light can be reflected, refracted, or dispersed.
    2. (b) Ray diagram description: Draw a convex lens with principal axis. Mark optical centre O, focal point F, and 2F on the left side. Place an upright object (arrow) between F and 2F on the left.
    3. Draw two rays from the top of the object: 1. A ray parallel to the principal axis which, after refraction, passes through the focal point F on the right side. 2. A ray passing through the optical centre O which goes straight without deviation.
    4. The refracted rays intersect on the right side of the lens, beyond 2F. Draw the image from the principal axis to this intersection point. The image is real, inverted, and magnified (larger than the object).

    Answer: (a) Light travels in straight lines and can be refracted. (b) The image formed is real, inverted, and magnified, located beyond 2F on the opposite side.

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  2. Q24

    4 marksThermal physics

    (a) Distinguish linear and areal (superficial) expansion. (b) What is the coefficient of real expansion?

    1. (a) Linear expansion: the increase in length of a solid on heating. Areal (superficial) expansion: the increase in its surface area on heating.
    2. (b) The coefficient of real expansion of a liquid is the ratio of the true (real) rise in its volume per degree rise in temperature to its original volume. Its unit is K⁻¹.

    Answer: Linear = change in length, areal = change in area; coefficient of real expansion = real rise in volume per degree ÷ original volume (unit K⁻¹).

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  3. Q25

    4 marksAcoustics

    The factors that affect the speed of sound in gases.

    1. 1. Density: the speed of sound in a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its density (v ∝ 1/√d).
    2. 2. Temperature: it is directly proportional to the square root of the absolute temperature (v ∝ √T).
    3. 3. Relative humidity: sound travels faster in moist air than in dry air.

    Answer: Density (v ∝ 1/√d), temperature (v ∝ √T) and relative humidity (faster in moist air).

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  4. Q26

    4 marksNuclear physics

    (i) Why were some children born in Japan after the Second World War born with congenital diseases? (ii) Two uses of radioisotopes in agriculture.

    1. (i) The atomic bombs dropped on Hiroshima and Nagasaki released intense ionizing radiation (gamma rays and neutrons). This radiation caused genetic mutations in the DNA of the parents, which were then passed on to their offspring, resulting in congenital diseases.
    2. (ii) Use 1: Radioisotopes are used to study the uptake of nutrients (like nitrogen and phosphorus) by plants to determine the most effective fertilizer dosage.
    3. (ii) Use 2: Radioisotopes are used in mutation breeding to induce genetic changes in seeds, leading to the development of new crop varieties with desirable traits such as higher yield or disease resistance.

    Answer: (i) Due to genetic mutations caused by radiation from atomic bombs. (ii) Studying nutrient uptake and mutation breeding.

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  5. Q27

    4 marksPeriodic classification

    (a) The type of bond between H and F in HF. (b) Which property tells us this? (c) How does that property change across periods and down groups?

    1. (a) The bond between H and F in HF is a covalent bond (specifically, a polar covalent bond).
    2. (b) The property that determines this is the difference in electronegativity between the two atoms.
    3. (c) Electronegativity increases from left to right across a period and decreases from top to bottom down a group.

    Answer: (a) Covalent bond; (b) Difference in electronegativity; (c) Electronegativity increases across a period and decreases down a group.

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  6. Q28

    4 marksCarbon compounds

    How is ethanoic acid made from ethanol? Give the equation.

    1. Ethanoic acid is prepared by the oxidation of ethanol.
    2. This process is carried out using an oxidising agent such as acidified potassium dichromate (K₂Cr₂O₇) or alkaline potassium permanganate (KMnO₄).
    3. The reaction involves heating ethanol with the oxidising agent, which removes hydrogen atoms and adds an oxygen atom to form the carboxylic acid.
    4. The chemical equation for this reaction is: C₂H₅OH + [O] → CH₃COOH + H₂O.

    Answer: Ethanoic acid is made by oxidising ethanol with acidified potassium dichromate or alkaline potassium permanganate. The equation is C₂H₅OH + [O] → CH₃COOH + H₂O.

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  7. Q29

    4 marksOrganisation of tissues (animals)

    (i) Why does the rabbit's trachea have rings of cartilage? (ii) Two parasitic adaptations of the leech.

    1. (i) The rings of cartilage hold the trachea open, so it does not collapse when air pressure inside drops; air passes freely.
    2. (ii) The leech has suckers at both ends to hold on to the host, and its saliva has hirudin, which stops the host's blood from clotting while it feeds.

    Answer: (i) To keep the trachea from collapsing. (ii) Suckers for attachment; hirudin in saliva to stop clotting.

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  8. Q30

    4 marksNervous system

    Classify neurons by their structure.

    1. Neurons are classified into three types based on their structure: Unipolar, Bipolar, and Multipolar.
    2. Unipolar neurons have a single process extending from the cell body; they are found in the embryonic stage and in some invertebrates.
    3. Bipolar neurons have two processes extending from the cell body (one axon and one dendrite); they are found in the retina of the eye and olfactory mucosa.
    4. Multipolar neurons have multiple dendrites and a single axon extending from the cell body; they are the most common type found in the brain, spinal cord, and ganglia.

    Answer: Neurons are structurally classified as Unipolar (one process), Bipolar (two processes), and Multipolar (multiple dendrites and one axon).

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  9. Q31

    4 marksEnvironmental management

    The importance of forests.

    1. Forests provide oxygen for respiration and absorb carbon dioxide, helping to maintain the balance of gases in the atmosphere.
    2. Trees prevent soil erosion by holding the soil with their roots and reducing the impact of rain, which conserves the topsoil.
    3. Forests act as natural water regulators by absorbing rainwater and releasing it slowly, which prevents floods and maintains the water table.
    4. Forests provide raw materials such as timber, paper, and medicinal herbs, and they serve as habitats for wildlife, maintaining biodiversity.

    Answer: Forests are vital for maintaining ecological balance, preventing soil erosion and floods, providing raw materials, and supporting biodiversity.

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  10. Q32

    4 marksThermal physicsCompulsory

    A 70 ml container is filled to 50 ml with a liquid and heated. The level first falls to 48.5 ml, then rises to 51.2 ml. Find the apparent and real expansion.

    1. Given: Initial volume of liquid V₁ = 50 ml, Final volume of liquid V₂ = 51.2 ml, Minimum volume reached V_min = 48.5 ml.
    2. Apparent expansion is the change in the level of the liquid relative to the container. It is calculated as the difference between the final level and the initial level.
    3. Apparent expansion = V₂ - V₁ = 51.2 ml - 50 ml = 1.2 ml.
    4. Real expansion is the actual increase in the volume of the liquid. It is calculated as the difference between the final level and the minimum level reached (which accounts for the expansion of the container).
    5. Real expansion = V₂ - V_min = 51.2 ml - 48.5 ml = 2.7 ml.

    Answer: Apparent expansion = 1.2 ml; Real expansion = 2.7 ml

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Part IV

  1. Q33(a)

    7 marksLaws of motion

    (i) The types of inertia, with an example of each. (ii) Why does a fielder pull the hands back while catching a cricket ball?

    1. (i) Types of Inertia:
    2. 1. Inertia of Rest: The tendency of a body to remain at rest. Example: When a bus suddenly starts, passengers fall backward because their feet move with the bus but their upper body tends to remain at rest.
    3. 2. Inertia of Motion: The tendency of a body to continue moving with the same velocity. Example: When a moving bus stops suddenly, passengers fall forward because their feet stop with the bus but their upper body continues to move forward.
    4. 3. Inertia of Direction: The tendency of a body to continue moving in the same direction. Example: When a car takes a sharp turn, passengers feel pushed outward (sideways) because their bodies tend to continue moving in the original straight-line direction.
    5. (ii) Reason for pulling hands back:
    6. When a fielder catches a fast-moving cricket ball, the ball has a large momentum. If the hands are held rigid, the time taken for the ball to stop is very small, resulting in a large force on the hands which can cause injury. By pulling the hands back, the fielder increases the time of impact. According to Newton's second law of motion (Force = Change in Momentum / Time), increasing the time of impact reduces the force exerted by the ball on the hands, preventing injury.

    Answer: Inertia is of three types: Rest, Motion, and Direction. Fielders pull hands back to increase the time of impact, which reduces the force exerted by the ball and prevents injury.

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  2. Q33(b)

    7 marksElectricity

    (i) Resistors of 1 Ω, 2 Ω and 4 Ω are in parallel; the 1 Ω one carries 1 A. Find the currents in the other two. (ii) State Ohm's law.

    1. Given resistors R₁ = 1 Ω, R₂ = 2 Ω, R₄ = 4 Ω are in parallel and current I₁ = 1 A flows through R₁.
    2. Calculate potential difference V across R₁ using Ohm's law: V = I₁ × R₁ = 1 A × 1 Ω = 1 V.
    3. In a parallel circuit, the potential difference is the same across all branches, so V = 1 V for R₂ and R₄.
    4. Calculate current through R₂: I₂ = V / R₂ = 1 V / 2 Ω = 0.5 A.
    5. Calculate current through R₄: I₄ = V / R₄ = 1 V / 4 Ω = 0.25 A.
    6. State Ohm's law: The current flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference across its ends, provided temperature and other physical conditions remain constant.
    7. Express Ohm's law mathematically as V = IR, where V is potential difference, I is current, and R is resistance.

    Answer: (i) Currents are 0.5 A and 0.25 A. (ii) Current is directly proportional to potential difference at constant temperature.

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  3. Q34(a)

    7 marksSolutions

    (i) What is a binary solution? (ii) One example each: gas in liquid, solid in liquid, solid in solid, gas in gas. (iii) What are aqueous and non-aqueous solutions? One example each.

    1. (i) A binary solution is a homogeneous mixture of two components, where one is the solute and the other is the solvent.
    2. (ii) Examples: Gas in liquid: Oxygen dissolved in water; Solid in liquid: Salt dissolved in water; Solid in solid: Brass (Zinc in Copper); Gas in gas: Oxygen in nitrogen (Air).
    3. (iii) Aqueous solutions are solutions where water is the solvent, e.g., salt in water. Non-aqueous solutions are solutions where a solvent other than water is used, e.g., iodine in ethanol.

    Answer: Binary solution: mixture of two components. Examples: O₂ in water, NaCl in water, Brass, Air. Aqueous: water as solvent (salt water); Non-aqueous: non-water solvent (iodine in ethanol).

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  4. Q34(b)

    7 marksChemical reactions

    (i) Explain the types of double displacement reaction with examples. (ii) Find the pH of a 1.0 × 10⁻⁴ M HNO₃ solution.

    1. Part (i): Double displacement reactions involve the exchange of ions between two reactants. The two main types are precipitation and neutralization.
    2. Precipitation reaction: Two aqueous solutions react to form an insoluble solid. Example: AgNO₃(aq) + NaCl(aq) → AgCl(s) + NaNO₃(aq).
    3. Neutralization reaction: An acid and a base react to form salt and water. Example: HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H₂O(l).
    4. Part (ii): HNO₃ is a strong monoprotic acid that dissociates completely: HNO₃ → H⁺ + NO₃⁻.
    5. The concentration of H⁺ ions is equal to the acid concentration: [H⁺] = 1.0 × 10⁻⁴ M.
    6. Use the formula pH = −log₁₀[H⁺].
    7. Substitute the value: pH = −log₁₀(1.0 × 10⁻⁴).
    8. Calculate: pH = −(−4) = 4.

    Answer: (i) Precipitation and neutralisation reactions. (ii) pH = 4.

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  5. Q35(a)

    7 marksPlant anatomy and physiology

    (i) The three basic tissue systems of flowering plants. (ii) What is photosynthesis and where in the cell does it happen? (iii) What is the respiratory quotient?

    1. (i) The three basic tissue systems of flowering plants are: 1. Dermal tissue system (protects the plant body), 2. Ground tissue system (fills the interior of the plant), and 3. Vascular tissue system (transports water, minerals, and food).
    2. (ii) Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants use sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide to produce glucose and oxygen. It takes place in the chloroplasts of the mesophyll cells of the leaf.
    3. (iii) The Respiratory Quotient (RQ) is the ratio of the volume of carbon dioxide (CO₂) released to the volume of oxygen (O₂) consumed during respiration. RQ = Volume of CO₂ released / Volume of O₂ consumed.

    Answer: The three tissue systems are dermal, ground, and vascular. Photosynthesis occurs in chloroplasts. RQ is the ratio of CO₂ released to O₂ consumed.

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  6. Q35(b)

    7 marksHeredity

    (i) Why did Mendel choose the pea plant? (ii) What are Okazaki fragments? (iii) DNA is made of two … chains (fill the blank).

    1. (i) The pea plant has clear contrasting characters (tall/dwarf and others), is naturally self-pollinating but easy to cross, has a short life cycle and gives many seeds.
    2. (ii) Okazaki fragments are short pieces of DNA made on the lagging strand during DNA replication; they are later joined by DNA ligase.
    3. (iii) DNA consists of two polynucleotide chains (running in opposite directions and wound into a double helix).

    Answer: (i) Contrasting characters, self-pollination, short life cycle, many seeds. (ii) Short DNA pieces on the lagging strand. (iii) polynucleotide.

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