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CLAT passages of October 2026

10 CLAT-format reading passages Shishya wrote in October 2026, each with five questions; the answer key is at the end. Written with AI from official releases (each source is named), answers checked against the passage. Practice passages, not official CLAT material.

Passage 1: Co-operative federalism and law reform

Written 23 Oct 2026 from: Law Commission of India to organise National Conference on 'Co-operative Federalism and Law Reforms: National and State Perspectives' (Ministry of Law and Justice (PIB), 21 Oct 2026, pib.gov.in)

India's Constitution does not leave law-making to a single authority. Its Seventh Schedule divides subjects into three lists: the Union List, on which Parliament legislates; the State List, on which State legislatures legislate; and the Concurrent List, on which both may make laws. This division is the legal skeleton of Indian federalism. It also means that reforming the law is rarely the job of one body alone.

The 23rd Law Commission of India chose this theme for a national conference held at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi, on 22 October 2026. It brought together State Law Commissions and similar bodies, jurists, former judges, scholars, policymakers, lawyers and teachers of law. The Vice-President of India was to inaugurate it, in the presence of the Union Minister of State for Law and Justice.

The idea behind 'co-operative federalism' is that the Union and the States, though each has its own field, can work together rather than in isolation. The conference set out to strengthen coordination among the bodies that review and propose changes to laws, while respecting the autonomy of the States, so that reform answers both national and regional needs.

Two sessions gave the discussion its shape. The first asked why laws need continuous review — because society, the economy and technology keep changing — and how such reform should be done: through accessible and justice-oriented changes, periodic review of statutes, and research. The second looked at law reform within a system of divided legislative powers, and at ways for national and State institutions to consult each other more, while keeping State laws responsive to local needs.

The underlying point is practical. A reform proposed at the national level may touch a subject on which only a State can legislate; a State reform may sit uneasily beside a central law on a concurrent subject. Regular consultation between the Law Commission of India and its State counterparts is one way to find such problems early, before they reach the courts.

  1. 1.1 According to the passage, on which subjects may both Parliament and the State legislatures make laws?

    • (A) Subjects in the Union List
    • (B) Subjects in the State List
    • (C) Subjects in the Concurrent List
    • (D) Only subjects that the Law Commission recommends
  2. 1.2 Which of these best captures the passage's idea of 'co-operative federalism'?

    • (A) The Union takes over State subjects to make laws uniform
    • (B) The Union and the States keep their own fields but work together
    • (C) States are free to ignore central laws on concurrent subjects
    • (D) Law Commissions replace legislatures in making laws
  3. 1.3 The author's reason for saying that reform is 'rarely the job of one body alone' is that:

    • (A) law-making powers are divided between the Union and the States
    • (B) the Vice-President must approve every reform
    • (C) only courts can change laws
    • (D) State Law Commissions have more powers than the Law Commission of India
  4. 1.4 According to the passage, why do laws need continuous review?

    • (A) Because courts strike down most laws
    • (B) Because society, the economy and technology keep changing
    • (C) Because State autonomy requires it
    • (D) Because the Constitution requires review every ten years
  5. 1.5 Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author's final point?

    • (A) Most conflicts between central and State laws are found only when a case reaches a court, even where the two Commissions consult regularly
    • (B) The conference was held at Vigyan Bhawan
    • (C) The Seventh Schedule has three lists
    • (D) State Law Commissions attended the conference

Answer this passage online

Passage 2: Disability pension and the 40 per cent benchmark

Written 23 Oct 2026 from: Pradhan Mantri Samajik Sahayata Yojana (PIB Backgrounder (PIB Research), 22 Oct 2026, pib.gov.in)

Article 41 of the Constitution is a Directive Principle: it asks the State, within the limits of its economic capacity, to make provision for public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement. The National Social Assistance Programme, launched on 15 August 1995, is one of the ways the Union has acted on it. It pays pensions to poor households for old age, widowhood and disability, and a one-time benefit when a household loses its main earner. The Union meets the central share in full; States and Union Territories add their own top-ups.

On 14 October 2026 the Union Cabinet approved continuing the programme for five years, from 2026-27 to 2030-31, with an outlay of ₹53,428 crore, and renamed it the Pradhan Mantri Samajik Sahayata Yojana. Three of its parts continue as before. The fourth, the disability pension, has been changed.

The change is about who counts as disabled for the pension. Since 2009 the pension had required severe disability — 80 per cent or more, a figure drawn from the National Trust Act, 1999 — and a minimum age of 18. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, passed to give effect to a United Nations convention, uses a different measure: it defines 'benchmark disability' as a specified disability of at least 40 per cent, certified by the prescribed authority. That 40 per cent measure already governs disability entitlements in higher education, government jobs, and land and housing.

The pension now uses the 2016 Act's benchmark of 40 per cent. The age limit has been removed, so a child can qualify from birth. Central assistance rises from ₹300 to ₹375 a month up to age 79, and from ₹500 to ₹625 a month from age 80. The number of beneficiaries of this pension rises from 8.33 lakh to 27.48 lakh.

Some conditions have not changed. A certificate of disability is still needed, the household must still be below the poverty line, and applications still go through the State welfare department. Revised guidelines are to be issued and implemented within three months of the decision.

  1. 2.1 Riya, aged 9, has a certified 55 per cent locomotor disability and lives in a household below the poverty line. Applying only the passage, which statement is correct?

    • (A) She cannot get the pension until she turns 18
    • (B) She cannot get the pension because her disability is below 80 per cent
    • (C) She can be eligible under the revised criteria, with a certificate and through the State welfare department
    • (D) She is eligible regardless of her household's income
  2. 2.2 Which statement about Article 41 is supported by the passage?

    • (A) It is a Fundamental Right that courts must enforce
    • (B) It is a Directive Principle asking for public assistance in cases including disablement
    • (C) It fixes the amount of the disability pension
    • (D) It was added by the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016
  3. 2.3 An 82-year-old beneficiary who already receives the disability pension asks what the central assistance will now be. According to the passage:

    • (A) ₹300 a month
    • (B) ₹375 a month
    • (C) ₹500 a month
    • (D) ₹625 a month
  4. 2.4 What is the main reason the passage gives for changing the disability pension?

    • (A) To align it with the 40 per cent benchmark already used under the 2016 Act
    • (B) To reduce the cost of the programme
    • (C) To move the pension from the States to the Union
    • (D) To end the need for a disability certificate
  5. 2.5 Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

    • (A) Every person with a disability in India will now receive the pension
    • (B) Before the change, a person with a certified 60 per cent disability could not get this pension
    • (C) States will stop paying top-ups
    • (D) The family benefit scheme has been ended

Answer this passage online

Passage 3: Online shopping and the amended E-Commerce Rules

Written 23 Oct 2026 from: Government amends E-Commerce Rules to strengthen consumer protection and promote transparency (Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution (PIB), 10 Sep 2026, pib.gov.in)

Consumer law in India has had to keep pace with the way people now shop. The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 allowed the Union Government to frame rules for online marketplaces, and the Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) Rules, 2020 were made under it. In September 2026 the Department of Consumer Affairs amended those rules. The amended rules take effect on 1 January 2027.

The Government has presented the change as a balance. On one side is the shopper, who often cannot inspect goods, may not know who the seller is, and depends on the platform to show honest information. On the other side is the business, which the Government says should not carry needless regulatory burden. The scale of the problem explains the attention: of about 17.7 lakh grievances received by the National Consumer Helpline in 2025, roughly 29 per cent concerned e-commerce.

Several of the new duties are about honesty in what a buyer sees. A platform may not arrange search results in a way that misleads users or makes the results less relevant to what was searched. Paid placements, called sponsored listings, must be clearly marked as such. When a platform announces a discount, it must show both the reduced price and the earlier price, and the earlier price is defined as the lowest price at which the item was offered in the 30 days before the announcement. This stops a seller from inflating a price for a day and then advertising a large 'cut'.

Other duties concern the buyer's information and money. A marketplace must not use a consumer's information for specified purposes unless the consumer has given express and affirmative consent, and it may not collect bundled fees for services unrelated to the platform, except for loyalty or membership programmes. Marketplaces must show details such as best-before dates, return and refund terms, warranty and delivery information, and imported goods must carry the importer's details and the country of origin.

Finally, the rules address grievances and manipulative design. Every e-commerce entity must join the convergence process of the National Consumer Helpline, and must give a complainant a copy of the complaint as its grievance officer recorded it. Platforms must follow the 2023 guidelines on dark patterns — interface tricks that push users into choices they did not intend — carry out a self-audit every year and display a certificate of compliance prominently.

  1. 3.1 A platform announces on 1 March 2027 that a phone is 'now ₹18,000, was ₹25,000'. In the 30 days before 1 March it sold the phone at ₹25,000 for one day and at ₹20,000 on every other day. Under the amended rules, which earlier price should it show?

    • (A) ₹25,000, the highest recent price
    • (B) ₹20,000, the lowest price in the preceding 30 days
    • (C) ₹18,000, since only the reduced price matters
    • (D) Any earlier price the seller chooses, if it is true
  2. 3.2 Which of the following can be inferred about why the Government gave attention to e-commerce grievances?

    • (A) E-commerce accounted for most grievances to the National Consumer Helpline in 2025
    • (B) E-commerce accounted for a large share, roughly 29 per cent, of grievances in 2025
    • (C) Grievances about e-commerce fell sharply in 2025
    • (D) The National Consumer Helpline received no e-commerce grievances before 2025
  3. 3.3 A marketplace wants to use buyers' purchase histories for one of the purposes the rules specify. According to the passage, what does it need?

    • (A) Nothing, if the data is anonymised
    • (B) Approval from the National Consumer Helpline
    • (C) The consumer's express and affirmative consent
    • (D) A certificate of compliance displayed on its site
  4. 3.4 Which statement best describes how the passage presents the purpose of the amendment?

    • (A) To protect shoppers whatever the cost to businesses
    • (B) To protect businesses from consumer complaints
    • (C) To protect shoppers while avoiding needless burden on businesses
    • (D) To replace the Consumer Protection Act, 2019
  5. 3.5 A shopper buys a product on 15 December 2026 and later complains that the 'Top pick' at the head of her search results was a paid listing that was not marked. Which is the most accurate statement?

    • (A) The amended rules apply, since they were made in September 2026
    • (B) The amended rules had not taken effect on the day of purchase
    • (C) Sponsored listings are banned outright under the amended rules
    • (D) The rules apply only to imported goods

Answer this passage online

Passage 4: A standing committee on judges' well-being

Written 23 Oct 2026 from: Supreme Court Constitutes Standing Committee on Judicial Well-being on World Mental Health Day (Supreme Court of India, 10 Oct 2026, sci.gov.in)

Discussions of judicial independence usually focus on appointments, transfers and freedom from outside pressure. The Supreme Court of India has now drawn attention to a less discussed condition of good judging: the health of judges themselves. On 10 October 2026, World Mental Health Day, the Chief Justice of India constituted a Standing Committee on Judicial Well-being under the Supreme Court.

The committee is chaired by a judge of the Supreme Court and has four other members: a psychiatrist who is a former dean of PGIMER Chandigarh, a psychologist, an Advocate-on-Record of the Supreme Court, and a registrar of the Court's Centre for Research and Planning. The mix of law and mental health in its membership signals that the problem is treated as both institutional and personal.

The Court's reasoning starts from the work itself. Judicial officers deal with heavy caseloads, long hours, complex decisions, administrative duties and cases that are emotionally hard. Research by the Court's Centre for Research and Planning on judges in the district judiciary examined occupational stress, workload, exhaustion, staff shortages, infrastructure, transfers, work-life balance and the support available.

The committee is meant to be continuing rather than a one-off. Its tasks include identifying where institutional help is needed, coordinating welfare measures, developing guidance and reviewing these measures from time to time. The Court's view is that the well-being of judges is not only a matter of personal welfare but is closely linked to the efficiency, quality and sustainability of justice.

The step also follows an international trend. A declaration on judicial well-being agreed at Nauru on 25 July 2024 asked for measures that are systemic and based on evidence to protect the physical and mental health of judges, and in March 2025 the United Nations General Assembly declared 25 July the International Day for Judicial Well-being. India's committee is therefore part of a wider recognition that a court system is only as sound as the people who staff it.

  1. 4.1 Which of the following best states the main idea of the passage?

    • (A) Judges should be transferred less often
    • (B) The Supreme Court has set up a standing body because it treats judges' well-being as linked to the quality of justice
    • (C) District judges work fewer hours than Supreme Court judges
    • (D) The United Nations requires India to set up the committee
  2. 4.2 What does the author suggest by pointing to the committee's mix of members?

    • (A) That the committee will decide cases
    • (B) That the problem is treated as both institutional and personal
    • (C) That only doctors can understand judicial stress
    • (D) That lawyers will supervise judges
  3. 4.3 Which of the following is listed in the passage as a task of the committee?

    • (A) Hearing complaints against individual judges
    • (B) Reviewing welfare measures from time to time
    • (C) Fixing judges' salaries
    • (D) Appointing district judges
  4. 4.4 On which date is the International Day for Judicial Well-being observed, according to the passage?

    • (A) 10 October
    • (B) 25 July
    • (C) 1 March
    • (D) 26 November
  5. 4.5 The author contrasts the committee's focus with the usual focus of discussions on judicial independence. What is that usual focus, according to the passage?

    • (A) Judges' mental health
    • (B) Appointments, transfers and freedom from outside pressure
    • (C) Court infrastructure
    • (D) The number of pending cases

Answer this passage online

Passage 5: Ten years of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015

Written 23 Oct 2026 from: Supreme Court to Host National Consultation on Ten Years of Juvenile Justice Act, 2015, on October 10–11, 2026 (Supreme Court of India, 9 Oct 2026, sci.gov.in)

Every legal system must decide how to treat a child who breaks the law, and how to protect a child who needs care. In India both questions are answered by one statute, the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015. Its title reflects the two groups it serves: children in conflict with law, and children in need of care and protection.

In October 2026 the Juvenile Justice Committee of the Supreme Court of India, working with UNICEF, held a two-day national consultation on ten years of the Act, on 10 and 11 October, at the Supreme Court in New Delhi. The Chief Justice of India was to inaugurate it, and a compendium of landmark Supreme Court and High Court judgments on the Act, from 2015 to September 2026, was to be released.

The agenda shows where the hard questions lie. One is the treatment of children in conflict with law, and in particular the 'preliminary assessment' that Juvenile Justice Boards carry out when a child is alleged to have committed a heinous offence — an assessment that bears on how the child's case is then handled. Others concern vulnerable children who need care and protection, the working of adoption, children living in institutions, and their rehabilitation.

Because the Act is carried out on the ground by State governments and local bodies, the consultation gave time to the experience of individual States and Union Territories, with representatives of several of them scheduled to speak. The stated aims were to review what has been achieved, identify difficulties in implementation, share good practices and set priorities for the next ten years.

The wider purpose, as the Court put it, is a system in which every child receives care, protection, dignity and access to justice. The consultation's emphasis on rehabilitation and reintegration reflects the idea that a child who has offended is still a child, and that the law's task is to restore as well as to respond.

  1. 5.1 According to the passage, which two groups of children does the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015 serve?

    • (A) Children in school and children out of school
    • (B) Children in conflict with law and children in need of care and protection
    • (C) Children under 12 and children aged 12 to 18
    • (D) Adopted children and children in institutions only
  2. 5.2 When does a Juvenile Justice Board carry out the 'preliminary assessment' mentioned in the passage?

    • (A) Before every adoption
    • (B) When a child is alleged to have committed a heinous offence
    • (C) When a child enters an institution for care
    • (D) When a State reports on the Act's implementation
  3. 5.3 Why, according to the passage, did the consultation give time to individual States and Union Territories?

    • (A) Because the Act is carried out on the ground by State governments and local bodies
    • (B) Because only States can amend the Act
    • (C) Because the Supreme Court has no role under the Act
    • (D) Because UNICEF asked for it
  4. 5.4 Which statement best reflects the author's view in the last paragraph?

    • (A) Children who offend should be treated exactly as adults
    • (B) The law should aim to restore a child who has offended, not only respond to the offence
    • (C) Rehabilitation matters only for children in need of care
    • (D) The Act has fully achieved its aims
  5. 5.5 Which of these was NOT among the subjects the passage says the consultation would discuss?

    • (A) Adoption procedures
    • (B) Institutional care and rehabilitation
    • (C) Lowering the age of criminal responsibility
    • (D) Care and protection of vulnerable children

Answer this passage online

Passage 6: A borrowed registration number on a battery

Written 27 Oct 2026 from: BIS Conducts Enforcement Operation in Chennai, Seizes Batteries Bearing Unauthorised BIS Markings (Bureau of Indian Standards (PIB Chennai), 22 Oct 2026, pib.gov.in)

A mark of quality is useful only if buyers can trust it. In India, the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) grants the Standard Mark, and for many electronic goods a product cannot be sold without a BIS registration. On 22 October 2026, officials of the BIS branch office in Chennai searched a mobile hardware shop in Velachery and seized about 300 lithium-ion batteries. The action was taken under Section 28 of the Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 2016.

The problem was not that the batteries carried no mark. They did carry the BIS Standard Mark, but the registration numbers printed on them were either invalid or belonged to other brands. In other words, a number that BIS had issued for one brand was being displayed on goods sold under a different brand name. Such batteries are covered by an Indian Standard, IS 16046 (Part 2):2018, and by an order of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology that makes registration compulsory for these goods.

Under this Compulsory Registration Scheme, the rule is specific: a registration is valid only for the product and the brand for which it was granted. A firm cannot borrow another firm's registration, and a seller cannot rely on a number simply because it looks official. BIS treats the use of one brand's registration on another brand's goods as a breach of the Act.

The law provides a serious penalty. Under Section 29 of the Act, depending on the offence, a violator may face imprisonment of up to two years, or a fine of at least ₹2,00,000 that can rise to ten times the value of the goods, or both. BIS has said it will take further action against the shop under the Act.

The head of the Chennai office used the case to make a broader point for buyers. A printed mark or number, he said, should not by itself satisfy a customer. Before buying electronic goods or batteries, consumers are advised to check, through the BIS Care App, the BIS website or the manakonline.in portal, that the registration is valid and matches the actual product and brand. Suspected misuse can be reported through the same app.

  1. 6.1 Which of the following best states the main point of the passage?

    • (A) Lithium-ion batteries are unsafe and should not be sold in India.
    • (B) A BIS registration belongs to a particular product and brand, so a printed mark alone does not prove compliance.
    • (C) The BIS Act, 2016 provides no penalty for misusing the Standard Mark.
    • (D) Only manufacturers, and never sellers, can break the BIS Act.
  2. 6.2 Company X holds a valid BIS registration for its power banks, which fall under the same compulsory order. Company Y has no registration and prints X's registration number on its own power banks. Applying the rule in the passage:

    • (A) Y complies, because the number is a genuine BIS number.
    • (B) Y complies if its power banks are as good as X's.
    • (C) Y is in breach, because a registration is valid only for the product and brand it was granted for.
    • (D) Only X is in breach, because the number was issued to X.
  3. 6.3 According to the passage, which of these is a possible punishment under Section 29 of the Act?

    • (A) Imprisonment of up to five years.
    • (B) A fixed fine of exactly ₹2,00,000 in every case.
    • (C) Imprisonment of up to two years, or a fine of at least ₹2,00,000 rising up to ten times the value of the goods, or both.
    • (D) Closing the shop permanently, with no fine.
  4. 6.4 Why does the author say that the problem "was not that the batteries carried no mark"?

    • (A) To show that the goods looked compliant even though the registration on them was misused.
    • (B) To suggest that the shop had done nothing wrong.
    • (C) To argue that the Standard Mark is no longer needed.
    • (D) To show that the batteries were imported.
  5. 6.5 What does the passage say a careful buyer of electronic goods should do?

    • (A) Buy only goods that carry no mark at all.
    • (B) Check through the BIS Care App, the BIS website or manakonline.in that the registration is valid and matches the product and brand.
    • (C) Ask the shopkeeper for a written guarantee.
    • (D) Trust the number printed on the packaging.

Answer this passage online

Passage 7: Parliaments in diplomacy: the 12th BRICS Parliamentary Forum

Written 27 Oct 2026 from: 12th BRICS Parliamentary Forum to be Held in the Central Hall of Samvidhan Sadan on 26–27 October 2026: Lok Sabha Speaker (Lok Sabha Secretariat (PIB), 22 Oct 2026, pib.gov.in)

Diplomacy is usually thought of as the work of governments, but legislatures also meet and talk across borders. India's Parliament announced that it would host the 12th BRICS Parliamentary Forum in the Central Hall of Samvidhan Sadan, on 26 and 27 October 2026. Speaking to the press on 22 October, Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla described the event as a new chapter in India's parliamentary diplomacy.

Taking part were to be the presiding officers and parliamentary leaders of BRICS member and partner countries, along with Union Ministers, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, presiding officers of State legislatures and Members of Parliament. The Speaker said the Prime Minister would attend and meet the leaders of the visiting delegations. A meeting of the delegations' Secretaries, set for 25 October, was to finalise the Forum's Joint Statement.

The overall theme chosen was "Strengthening Parliaments for People-Centric Development". Discussion was planned in four high-level sessions, meant to reach agreement through dialogue. The first, on resilience, concerned the part parliaments play in making institutions stronger for the future. The second, on innovation, was about parliaments encouraging human-centred progress in artificial intelligence and digital technology.

The third session, on cooperation, dealt with making global governance more representative through cooperation among parliaments, and the fourth, on sustainability, with the role of parliaments in securing a sustainable and inclusive future. Apart from these, the chairpersons of the international affairs committees of the participating parliaments were to hold a special meeting on parliamentary diplomacy, capacity building and the sharing of good practices.

The programme also included bilateral and multilateral meetings, talks with parliamentary friendship groups, a cultural programme, and a banquet to be hosted by the Vice-President of India. Delegates were to visit the Parliament of India and places of interest in Delhi before the Forum closed on 27 October.

  1. 7.1 The passage is mainly about:

    • (A) a trade agreement signed by BRICS governments.
    • (B) India hosting a forum at which the parliaments of BRICS countries meet.
    • (C) a dispute between BRICS member countries.
    • (D) an election to the Rajya Sabha.
  2. 7.2 What was the meeting of the delegations' Secretaries on 25 October meant to do?

    • (A) Elect a chairperson for the Forum.
    • (B) Finalise the Forum's Joint Statement.
    • (C) Host the banquet.
    • (D) Choose the Forum's theme.
  3. 7.3 A discussion on how parliaments can promote human-centred uses of artificial intelligence belongs to which session?

    • (A) Resilience
    • (B) Innovation
    • (C) Cooperation
    • (D) Sustainability
  4. 7.4 The first sentence of the passage suggests that the author believes:

    • (A) only governments can conduct diplomacy.
    • (B) legislatures can also take part in dealings across borders.
    • (C) parliaments should stay out of foreign affairs.
    • (D) BRICS countries have no parliaments.
  5. 7.5 According to the passage, who was to host the banquet?

    • (A) The Prime Minister
    • (B) The Lok Sabha Speaker
    • (C) The Vice-President of India
    • (D) The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

Answer this passage online

Passage 8: Stubble burning and the air-quality commission's review

Written 27 Oct 2026 from: CAQM Reviews Air Pollution Control Measures in Punjab and Haryana, Calls for Prompt Ground-Level Action (Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (PIB), 22 Oct 2026, pib.gov.in)

Air pollution in the National Capital Region is a particular concern in the winter months, and the burning of paddy stubble in neighbouring States is among the sources under review. The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM), set up for the National Capital Region and the areas around it, issues directions on this problem. On 22 October 2026, the Commission, chaired by Rajesh Verma, held separate review meetings in Chandigarh with the Governments of Punjab and Haryana.

With Punjab, the focus was narrow: how far the State had carried out its action plan against stubble burning, which the Commission had required through its Direction No. 99 of 15 May 2026. The review looked at enforcement on the ground, preparation at the district level, and whether crop residue management machines were actually reaching farmers and being used. It also looked at how paddy straw is collected, moved and put to use, both in the field and away from it.

The meeting with Haryana was wider. Besides stubble, it covered pollution from vehicles, dust from roads, open land and construction sites, and industry. On vehicles, the measures discussed included cameras that read number plates at fuel and CNG stations to check for valid pollution certificates, action against vehicles at the end of their life, and the phasing out of diesel auto-rickshaws in NCR districts.

With both States, the Commission also checked compliance with Direction No. 92, which requires brick kilns to use pellets or briquettes made from paddy straw, and progress on co-firing biomass in thermal power plants. Monitoring tools such as satellite fire alerts, drones and low-cost sensors were reviewed as well.

The Commission asked for time-bound action and close coordination between State departments, district administrations and enforcement agencies. It warned district administrations that laxity leading to more burning incidents would be viewed seriously. At the same time, it urged that paddy straw be treated as a resource for a circular economy rather than only as waste whose burning must be stopped.

  1. 8.1 Which statement about the two review meetings is supported by the passage?

    • (A) Both meetings covered exactly the same subjects.
    • (B) The meeting with Haryana covered more sources of pollution than the meeting with Punjab.
    • (C) The meeting with Punjab dealt only with vehicles.
    • (D) Brick kilns were not discussed in either meeting.
  2. 8.2 According to the passage, Direction No. 99 of 15 May 2026 is the direction that:

    • (A) phases out diesel auto-rickshaws.
    • (B) required Punjab's action plan against stubble burning.
    • (C) requires brick kilns to use paddy-straw pellets.
    • (D) applies only to thermal power plants.
  3. 8.3 A brick kiln in one of these States burns only coal and uses no pellets or briquettes made from paddy straw. On the passage alone, the kiln is:

    • (A) compliant, because coal is not paddy stubble.
    • (B) not compliant with Direction No. 92.
    • (C) exempt, because Direction No. 92 covers only power plants.
    • (D) compliant if it installs a low-cost sensor.
  4. 8.4 How does the Commission view paddy straw, according to the passage?

    • (A) As waste that can only be destroyed.
    • (B) As a resource for a circular economy, not only as something whose burning must be prevented.
    • (C) As a matter for farmers alone.
    • (D) As unrelated to air quality.
  5. 8.5 Which of these measures against vehicle pollution is mentioned in the passage?

    • (A) A ban on all CNG vehicles.
    • (B) Cameras that read number plates at fuel and CNG stations to check pollution certificates.
    • (C) Free drones for vehicle owners.
    • (D) Co-firing biomass in cars.

Answer this passage online

Passage 9: PM-DAKSH: a skilling scheme folded into a larger one

Written 27 Oct 2026 from: 1, 87,305 Candidates Trained and Placed 96,162 During 2020-21 to 2023-24 under PM-DAKSH Scheme (Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment (PIB), 22 Oct 2026, pib.gov.in)

PM-DAKSH, a Central Sector Scheme started in 2020-21, offered skill training to Scheduled Castes, Other Backward Classes, Economically Weaker Sections, De-notified Tribes and Safai Karamcharis, including waste pickers. Training was given through empanelled institutes, with the aim of helping trainees earn wages or start their own work, and so improve their social and economic position.

Three corporations under the Department of Social Justice and Empowerment ran the scheme: the national finance and development corporations for Scheduled Castes, for Backward Classes and for Safai Karamcharis. According to an official of the Ministry, the department releases money to these corporations, which then repay institutes for the cost of training; the institutes are ones on the panel of the skill development ministry's Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY).

From 2024-25, PM-DAKSH was merged into PMKVY. The reason given is duplication: PM-DAKSH was an addition to PMKVY, and every job role it trained for came from the Skill India Digital Hub portal and was already covered by PMKVY. Keeping two schemes for the same courses was therefore seen as unnecessary.

The scheme also tied payment to results. After training, an institute must place at least 70 per cent of its trainees in wage employment or self-employment. If it falls short, it loses the third instalment, which is 30 per cent of the training cost. Institutes must also keep links with industry, and the corporations offer loans and handholding to eligible young people who want to set up projects of their own.

The figures given are these: ₹276.47 crore was allotted from 2020-21 to 2023-24, while ₹309.5 crore has been spent so far; 1,87,305 candidates were trained and 96,162 placed in those years. An evaluation study, the official said, found that more than 90 per cent of beneficiaries felt the training matched their career goals and local job markets, and it found gains in confidence, self-esteem and social recognition.

  1. 9.1 Why, according to the passage, was PM-DAKSH merged into PMKVY?

    • (A) It had trained no candidates.
    • (B) Its job roles were already covered by PMKVY, so running both schemes duplicated effort.
    • (C) The three corporations were closed down.
    • (D) The 70 per cent placement rule was withdrawn.
  2. 9.2 An institute trained 200 candidates under the scheme and placed 130 of them in wage employment or self-employment. Applying the rule in the passage:

    • (A) It gets every instalment, because it placed more than half.
    • (B) It loses the third instalment, because 130 is below 70 per cent of 200.
    • (C) It must refund the whole training cost.
    • (D) It is removed from the scheme at once.
  3. 9.3 Which conclusion follows from the figures in the passage?

    • (A) Less money was spent than was allotted.
    • (B) More money has been spent than was allotted for 2020-21 to 2023-24.
    • (C) Every trained candidate was placed.
    • (D) Fewer than one lakh candidates were trained.
  4. 9.4 Who repays training institutes for the cost of training?

    • (A) The trainees themselves.
    • (B) The three corporations, with money released by the department.
    • (C) Private industry partners.
    • (D) The Skill India Digital Hub.
  5. 9.5 Which group is NOT named in the passage among those the scheme trained?

    • (A) De-notified Tribes
    • (B) Safai Karamcharis, including waste pickers
    • (C) Scheduled Tribes
    • (D) Economically Weaker Sections

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Passage 10: Three ministries, one training centre for tribal youth

Written 27 Oct 2026 from: Tripartite MoU signed to strengthen livelihood opportunities for Scheduled Tribe youth (Ministry of Tribal Affairs (PIB), 22 Oct 2026, pib.gov.in)

Economic empowerment, a release of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs argues, becomes more effective only when people's skills are upgraded along with the money they receive. Training and knowledge, it says, must be closely linked to funding if Scheduled Tribe communities are to build livelihoods that last, and new entrepreneurs need basic knowledge of finance, marketing and branding.

The example it gives is the Livelihood Business Incubation Centre at Rourkela in Odisha, set up in 2018 and recognised by the Ministry as a Centre of Excellence. The centre is a joint effort of three ministries acting through public bodies under them: the National Scheduled Tribes Finance and Development Corporation (NSTFDC) of the Tribal Affairs Ministry, NSIC under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, and the Rourkela Steel Plant of Steel Authority of India Ltd under the Ministry of Steel. On 22 October 2026, the three signed a tripartite memorandum of understanding.

Each partner has a defined share. The steel plant provides the site; plant and machinery are installed under the MSME Ministry's ASPIRE scheme; and the centre's recurring expenses are borne by NSTFDC from a grant of the Tribal Affairs Ministry.

The centre's purpose is to train local Scheduled Tribe youth and help them start sustainable enterprises. Courses this year include assistant beautician, self-employed tailor, assistant computer operator (Tally and accounting), assistant electrician, bread and bakery manufacturing, and mushroom farming. The centre has also offered training in welding, furniture making, and soya milk and tofu work. According to the release, more than 600 students have benefited and have set up businesses such as bakeries, mushroom farms, beauty parlours and tailoring units.

At the signing, officials of the three bodies met trainees and teachers and discussed how candidates are brought in, how the current training modules are working and how trainees are progressing.

  1. 10.1 Which argument does the passage attribute to the Ministry's release?

    • (A) Funding alone is enough to build lasting livelihoods.
    • (B) Skills and funding must go together for livelihoods that last.
    • (C) Only steel plants should train tribal youth.
    • (D) New entrepreneurs do not need to know about marketing.
  2. 10.2 According to the passage, who bears the centre's recurring expenses?

    • (A) The Rourkela Steel Plant
    • (B) NSIC
    • (C) NSTFDC, from a grant of the Tribal Affairs Ministry
    • (D) The trainees
  3. 10.3 If the steel plant left the arrangement, which contribution described in the passage would be directly affected?

    • (A) The machinery installed under ASPIRE
    • (B) The site of the centre
    • (C) The grant for recurring costs
    • (D) The list of courses
  4. 10.4 Which of these is listed among this year's courses?

    • (A) Welding
    • (B) Mushroom farming
    • (C) Furniture making
    • (D) Soya milk and tofu work
  5. 10.5 What happened on 22 October 2026, according to the passage?

    • (A) The Rourkela centre was founded.
    • (B) The three bodies signed a tripartite memorandum of understanding.
    • (C) The centre was closed for repairs.
    • (D) Six hundred new trainees joined that day.

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Answer key

Passage 1: Co-operative federalism and law reform

  1. 1.1 (C) The passage says the Concurrent List is the one on which both may make laws. From the passage: “the Concurrent List, on which both may make laws”
  2. 1.2 (B) The passage describes the Union and the States, each with its own field, working together rather than in isolation, while respecting State autonomy. From the passage: “though each has its own field, can work together rather than in isolation”
  3. 1.3 (A) The sentence follows directly from the division of law-making powers in the Seventh Schedule. From the passage: “It also means that reforming the law is rarely the job of one body alone.”
  4. 1.4 (B) The first session's reason is stated in the passage. From the passage: “because society, the economy and technology keep changing”
  5. 1.5 (A) The final point is that regular consultation can find such problems before they reach the courts; evidence that consultation does not do so would weaken it. The other options are neutral facts. From the passage: “Regular consultation between the Law Commission of India and its State counterparts is one way to find such problems early, before they reach the courts.”

Passage 2: Disability pension and the 40 per cent benchmark

  1. 2.1 (C) The age limit is removed, the benchmark is 40 per cent, and a certificate, below-poverty-line status and the State route remain conditions. From the passage: “The age limit has been removed, so a child can qualify from birth.”
  2. 2.2 (B) The passage calls Article 41 a Directive Principle and lists disablement among its cases. From the passage: “Article 41 of the Constitution is a Directive Principle”
  3. 2.3 (D) From age 80 the central assistance rises to ₹625 a month. From the passage: “from ₹500 to ₹625 a month from age 80”
  4. 2.4 (A) The passage explains the 2016 Act's benchmark, notes it already governs other entitlements, and says the pension now uses it. The certificate is still needed. From the passage: “The pension now uses the 2016 Act's benchmark of 40 per cent.”
  5. 2.5 (B) Before the change the pension required 80 per cent or more, so 60 per cent did not qualify. The other options contradict the passage. From the passage: “the pension had required severe disability — 80 per cent or more”

Passage 3: Online shopping and the amended E-Commerce Rules

  1. 3.1 (B) The passage defines the earlier price as the lowest price at which the item was offered in the 30 days before the announcement: here ₹20,000. From the passage: “the earlier price is defined as the lowest price at which the item was offered in the 30 days before the announcement”
  2. 3.2 (B) The passage gives roughly 29 per cent — a large share but not most. Nothing is said about a fall or about earlier years. From the passage: “roughly 29 per cent concerned e-commerce”
  3. 3.3 (C) The passage says a marketplace must not use consumer information for specified purposes without express and affirmative consent. From the passage: “unless the consumer has given express and affirmative consent”
  4. 3.4 (C) The passage calls the change a balance between the shopper and businesses that should not carry needless burden; the rules are made under the 2019 Act, not in place of it. From the passage: “The Government has presented the change as a balance.”
  5. 3.5 (B) The amended rules take effect on 1 January 2027, after the purchase date. (They require sponsored listings to be marked, not banned.) From the passage: “The amended rules take effect on 1 January 2027.”

Passage 4: A standing committee on judges' well-being

  1. 4.1 (B) The passage describes the committee and the Court's view that judges' well-being is linked to the efficiency, quality and sustainability of justice. Nothing says the UN requires it. From the passage: “closely linked to the efficiency, quality and sustainability of justice”
  2. 4.2 (B) The author says the mix of law and mental health signals that the problem is treated as both institutional and personal. From the passage: “The mix of law and mental health in its membership signals that the problem is treated as both institutional and personal.”
  3. 4.3 (B) Its tasks include identifying needs, coordinating welfare measures, developing guidance and reviewing these measures from time to time. From the passage: “reviewing these measures from time to time”
  4. 4.4 (B) The General Assembly declared 25 July the International Day for Judicial Well-being. From the passage: “declared 25 July the International Day for Judicial Well-being”
  5. 4.5 (B) The first sentence says discussions usually focus on appointments, transfers and freedom from outside pressure. From the passage: “usually focus on appointments, transfers and freedom from outside pressure”

Passage 5: Ten years of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015

  1. 5.1 (B) The passage names these two groups from the Act's title. From the passage: “children in conflict with law, and children in need of care and protection”
  2. 5.2 (B) The passage ties preliminary assessment to an alleged heinous offence. From the passage: “when a child is alleged to have committed a heinous offence”
  3. 5.3 (A) The passage gives this reason directly. From the passage: “Because the Act is carried out on the ground by State governments and local bodies”
  4. 5.4 (B) The author says a child who has offended is still a child and the law's task is to restore as well as to respond. From the passage: “the law's task is to restore as well as to respond”
  5. 5.5 (C) The passage lists adoption, institutional care and rehabilitation, and the care of vulnerable children; it does not mention changing any age. From the passage: “Others concern vulnerable children who need care and protection, the working of adoption, children living in institutions, and their rehabilitation.”

Passage 6: A borrowed registration number on a battery

  1. 6.1 (B) The passage turns on the rule that a registration is valid only for its own product and brand, and ends by warning buyers not to trust a printed number alone. From the passage: “a registration is valid only for the product and the brand for which it was granted”
  2. 6.2 (C) The passage says using one brand's registration on another brand's goods is a breach of the Act, whoever made the number. From the passage: “BIS treats the use of one brand's registration on another brand's goods as a breach of the Act.”
  3. 6.3 (C) The passage gives exactly these limits: up to two years, a fine from ₹2,00,000 up to ten times the goods' value, or both. From the passage: “a violator may face imprisonment of up to two years, or a fine of at least ₹2,00,000 that can rise to ten times the value of the goods, or both”
  4. 6.4 (A) The next sentence explains that the batteries did carry the mark, but with numbers that were invalid or belonged to other brands. From the passage: “They did carry the BIS Standard Mark, but the registration numbers printed on them were either invalid or belonged to other brands.”
  5. 6.5 (B) The Chennai office advises buyers to verify the registration through these official channels instead of relying on a printed number. From the passage: “consumers are advised to check, through the BIS Care App, the BIS website or the manakonline.in portal, that the registration is valid and matches the actual product and brand”

Passage 7: Parliaments in diplomacy: the 12th BRICS Parliamentary Forum

  1. 7.1 (B) Every paragraph describes the Forum that India's Parliament hosts. From the passage: “India's Parliament announced that it would host the 12th BRICS Parliamentary Forum”
  2. 7.2 (B) The passage says that meeting was to finalise the Joint Statement. From the passage: “A meeting of the delegations' Secretaries, set for 25 October, was to finalise the Forum's Joint Statement.”
  3. 7.3 (B) The innovation session is the one about human-centred progress in AI and digital technology. From the passage: “The second, on innovation, was about parliaments encouraging human-centred progress in artificial intelligence and digital technology.”
  4. 7.4 (B) The sentence contrasts the usual view with the fact that legislatures also meet and talk across borders. From the passage: “but legislatures also meet and talk across borders”
  5. 7.5 (C) The last paragraph names the Vice-President of India as the host of the banquet. From the passage: “a banquet to be hosted by the Vice-President of India”

Passage 8: Stubble burning and the air-quality commission's review

  1. 8.1 (B) Punjab's review was about stubble burning; Haryana's also covered vehicles, dust and industry. From the passage: “The meeting with Haryana was wider.”
  2. 8.2 (B) The passage links Direction No. 99 to the action plan against stubble burning reviewed with Punjab. From the passage: “which the Commission had required through its Direction No. 99 of 15 May 2026”
  3. 8.3 (B) Direction No. 92, as the passage states it, requires brick kilns to use paddy-straw pellets or briquettes. From the passage: “Direction No. 92, which requires brick kilns to use pellets or briquettes made from paddy straw”
  4. 8.4 (B) The last paragraph says the Commission urged that straw be treated as a resource. From the passage: “it urged that paddy straw be treated as a resource for a circular economy rather than only as waste whose burning must be stopped”
  5. 8.5 (B) The Haryana review listed number-plate cameras at fuel and CNG stations to check pollution certificates. From the passage: “cameras that read number plates at fuel and CNG stations to check for valid pollution certificates”

Passage 9: PM-DAKSH: a skilling scheme folded into a larger one

  1. 9.1 (B) The passage gives duplication as the reason: the same job roles were already under PMKVY. From the passage: “Keeping two schemes for the same courses was therefore seen as unnecessary.”
  2. 9.2 (B) 70 per cent of 200 is 140; placing 130 falls short, and the passage says the third instalment is then lost. From the passage: “If it falls short, it loses the third instalment, which is 30 per cent of the training cost.”
  3. 9.3 (B) ₹309.5 crore spent is more than the ₹276.47 crore allotted. From the passage: “₹276.47 crore was allotted from 2020-21 to 2023-24, while ₹309.5 crore has been spent so far”
  4. 9.4 (B) The passage says the department releases money to the corporations, which repay the institutes. From the passage: “the department releases money to these corporations, which then repay institutes”
  5. 9.5 (C) The list in the first paragraph names the other three groups but not Scheduled Tribes. From the passage: “offered skill training to Scheduled Castes, Other Backward Classes, Economically Weaker Sections, De-notified Tribes and Safai Karamcharis, including waste pickers”

Passage 10: Three ministries, one training centre for tribal youth

  1. 10.1 (B) The first paragraph says training and knowledge must be closely linked to funding. From the passage: “Training and knowledge, it says, must be closely linked to funding if Scheduled Tribe communities are to build livelihoods that last”
  2. 10.2 (C) The third paragraph assigns recurring expenses to NSTFDC, funded by a Ministry grant. From the passage: “the centre's recurring expenses are borne by NSTFDC from a grant of the Tribal Affairs Ministry”
  3. 10.3 (B) The passage says the steel plant's share is the site. From the passage: “The steel plant provides the site”
  4. 10.4 (B) Mushroom farming is in this year's list; the other three are named only among the centre's other courses. From the passage: “Courses this year include assistant beautician, self-employed tailor, assistant computer operator (Tally and accounting), assistant electrician, bread and bakery manufacturing, and mushroom farming.”
  5. 10.5 (B) The centre dates from 2018; the passage says the MoU was signed on 22 October 2026. From the passage: “On 22 October 2026, the three signed a tripartite memorandum of understanding.”

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